Virtual University Solved Assignments Online Quiz Past Papers GDB VUsolutions VU solutions

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. A
10. B


1) The process of translating thought into a symbolic form is known as ___________.
A- Encoding
B- Feedback
C- Noise
D- Decoding
2) Which of the following is NOT a requirement for setting advertising objectives?
A- Objectives must specify the amount of change.
B- Objectives must be stated in terms of profits.
C- Objectives must be realistic.
D- Objectives must be clear and in writing.
3) In terms of execution styles, a family seated at the dinner table enjoying the advertised product would be an example of which of the following types of advertising?
A- Lifestyle
B- Mood or imagery
C- Slice of life
D- Personality symbol
4) Which one of the following types of advertising promotes products, services or ideas with the expectation of making a profit?
A- Product advertising
B- Non-commercial advertising
C- Action advertising
D- Commercial advertising
5) Which one of the following refers to number of times the audience is exposed to an advertisement message?
A- Frequency
B- Reach
C- Scheduling
D- Coverage
6) Which promotion mix ingredient costs considerably more than advertising to reach one person but can provide more immediate feedback?
A- Publicity
B- Personal selling
C- Sales Promotion
D- Public relations
7) Which one of the following is included in classification of advertisement?
A- Perceptible
B- Imperceptible
C- Target Audience
D- Induced
8) Which one of the following is NOT an ingredient of a Promotion mix?
A- Direct marketing
B- Sales promotion
C- Advertising
D- Warehousing
9) Technological advances, shifts in consumer tastes, and increased competition, all of which reduce demand for a product are typical of which stage in the PLC?
A- Decline stage
B- Introduction stage
C- Growth stage
D- Maturity stage
10) A(n) _______________ is a name, term, sign, symbol, or design, or a combination of these that identifies the maker or seller of a product or service.
A- Product feature
B- Brand
C- Sponsorship
D- Logo

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. A
10. B

Quiz # 1 of MKT621 has been upload1. Which one of the following is the main ingredient of Promotional mix?
A. Advertising
B. Personal selling
C. Public relation
D. All of the given options 2. Which one of the following form of communication represents advertising?
A. Paid form of personal communication
B. Unpaid form of personal communication
C. Paid form of non personal communication
D. Unpaid form of non personal communication
3. If a company's customers are concentrated in a small geographic area and the company sells technical products, which one of the following promotion methods is better?
A. Advertising
B. Personal selling
C. Publicity
D. Public relation
4. Which promotion mix ingredient costs considerably more than advertising to reach one person but can provide more immediate feedback?
A. Personal selling
B. Advertising
C. Publicity
D. Public relation
5. Which one of the following is NOT a part of advertising Pyramid?
A. Need
B. Attention
C. Desire
D. Interest
6. Nestle gave an advertisement, “Nestlé’s makes the very best chocolate,” which one of the following claim they have used in this advertisement?
A. Weasel claim
B. Puffery
C. Shock ad
D. Emotional ad
7. In US presidential election 2008, two major candidates, Barak Obma and John Mackin had spent more then $ 28million for advertising their election campaign. Which one of the following benefits they got from this huge spending?
A. Economic
B. Social
C. Political
D. Cultural
8. Which one of the following major benefit advertising is providing to the society?
A. Using latest media
B. Using latest technology
C. Using celebrities in the advertisements
D. Providing information about a new product
9. Which one of the following is NOT a component of a product?
A. Credit term
B. Quality
C. Design
D. Packaging
10. Which one of the following is mostly closely associated with the concept of Intermediaries?
A. Market targeting
B. Channels of distribution
C. Market segmentation
D. Marketing information

Q No. Selected option
1 C
2 A
3 A
4 D
5 B
6 B
7 B
8 D
9 A
10 C


HRM628 ORganizational development


1. A __________ may be defined as an unwritten agreement between individuals
and the organization of which they are members.
a. Behavioral contract
b. Social contract
c. Psychological contract
d. Peripheral contract
2. Which one of the following is the part of contemporary action research?
a. Choose positive objective
b. Problem identification
c. Joint action planning
d. Unfreezing
3. The __________ is someone not previously associated with the client system.
a. External practitioner
b. Internal practitioner
c. Chief executive officer
d. Organization development
4. The goal of, which of the following organization development practicing style, is
neither effectiveness nor participant satisfaction?
a. Cheerleader Style
b. Analyzer Style
c. Persuader Style
d. Stabilizer Style
5. Members keep their true feelings about self- fulfillment and organizational
effectiveness to themselves, assuming that sharing information may threaten
personally desired outcomes in which of the following practitioner-client
relationship mode?
a. The apathetic mode
b. The gamesmanship mode
c. The charismatic mode
d. The consensus mode
6. Which of the following statement is true about “consensus mode” of
practitioner-client relationship?
a. A limited number of members openly share ideas and feelings with the rest, based
on perceptions of leadership
b. Members continuously share perceptions and feelings openly both on selffulfillment
and organizational effectiveness
c. Members keep their true feelings about self- fulfillment and organizational
effectiveness to themselves, assuming that sharing information may threaten
personally desired outcomes
d. Members keep their true ideas about self-fulfillment and organization
effectiveness to themselves assuming that sharing this information will not make
any difference
7. Organizational Development is a planned change in an organization’s culture
through the utilization of __________ technology, research and theory.
a. Management
7. Organizational Development is a planned change in an organization’s culture
through the utilization of __________ technology, research and theory.
a. Management Science
b. Behavioral Science
c. Human Science
d. All of the given options
8. Which of the following is not necessary to be exhibited in a successful change
practitioner?
a. Empathy
b. Knowledge of the theories
c. Methods within the consultant's own discipline
d. Straight forwardness
9. __________ occurs when information gathered during the OD process is used
punitively. Large amounts of information are invariably obtained during the
entry and diagnostic phases of OD.
a. Misuse of data
b. Democratic value
c. Misrepresentation
d. Coercion
10. “Organization development practitioner should consult the relevant employees”.
This is an example of which of the following contracting process?
a. Describing
b. Mutual Expectations
c. Time and Resources
d. Ground Rules

1 B
2 D
3 D
4 D
5 A
6 C
7 C
8 B
9 C
10 A
11 C
12 D
13 C
14 C
15 A
16 C
17 C
18 A
19 D
20 B
-----------------------------------------
1. Which of the following would NOT be the characteristics of current assets?

A. Likely to change before the next accounting period is over
B. Not bought for resale
C. Use as part of the firm's trading operations
D. Liquidity

2. ABC Company has Rs. 150,000 cash, Rs. 80,000 as accounts receivables, Rs. 20,000
as allowance for doubtful accounts, Rs. 10,000 as work in progress inventory, Rs. 55,000
as prepaid expenses, Rs. 50,000 land purchased in the current year. Calculate the value of
current assets.

A. Rs. 275,000
B. Rs. 315,000
C. Rs. 365,000
D. Rs. 220,000

3. Which of the following would be considered a cash-flow item from a "financing"
activity?

A. A cash outflow to the government for taxes
B. A cash outflow to repurchase the firm's own common stock
C. A cash outflow to lenders as interest
D. A cash outflow to purchase bonds issued by another company

4. Which of the following is NOT an example of cash equivalents?

A. Certificates of Deposit
B. Money market accounts
C. Money market mutual funds
D. Euro Bond

5. Which of the following would NOT be considered a cash flow from “operating” activities?

A. Payments for the sale of loans
B. Interest received on loans
C. Tax payments
D. Payment of debt principle


6. Depreciation is added back to profit when arriving at the cash flow from operating
activities because:

A. Depreciation is only an estimated amount
B. Depreciation does not affect profit
C. Depreciation does not result in a flow of cash
D. Depreciation only affects the balance sheet, not the profit and loss account

7. If net profit before taxation and interest was Rs. 95,000, depreciation for the year was
Rs. 17,000, stock has decreased during the year by Rs. 7,000, debtors have increased by
Rs. 11,000 and creditors have decreased by Rs. 4,000, what is the overall cash flow from
operating activities?

A. Rs. 104,000
B. Rs. 112,000
C. Rs. 98,000
D. Rs. 134,000

8. In the long run, a business must generate positive net cash flow from which of the
following activities, if it is to survive?

A. Investing activities
B. Financing activities
C. Operating activities
D. Non cash activities

9. The income statement of the UBL shows the interest revenue of Rs. 6,000, and the
amount of accrued interest receivable has increased from Rs. 3000 to Rs. 4000 during the
year. Calculate the amount of interest received.

A. Rs. 7000
B. Rs. 8000
C. Rs. 5000
D. Rs. 1000

10. The statement of cash flow does NOT assist investors, creditors and others in
assessing such factors as:

A. The company’s ability to generate positive cash flows in future periods
B. The company’s ability to meet its obligations and to pay dividends
C. The company’s ability to forecast future losses
D. The company’s needs for external financing


11. Which of the following should NOT be called “Sales”?

A. Goods sold for cash
B. Office fixtures sold
C. Goods sold on credit
D. Sale of item previously included in ‘Purchases’

12. An incorrect inventory balance would NOT cause an error in the calculation of
___________.

A. Cost of goods sold
B. Net income
C. Gross profit
D. Dividends

13. Which of the following is NOT true about the specific identification method?

A. It requires a very detailed physical count
B. This method allows management to easily manipulate ending inventory cost
C. This method is very hard to use on interchangeable goods
D. This results in an overstated inventory account during the period of inflation

14. Under the periodic inventory system, which of the following is a correct closing
entry?

A. Debit - Income Summary; Credit - Sales
B. Credit - Income Summary; Debit - Purchase Returns & Allowances
C. Debit - Income Summary; Credit Merchandise Inventory
D. Debit Purchases; Credit - Income Summary

15. In a periodic inventory system, when merchandise is purchased its cost is debited to
________ account.

A. Inventory
B. Inventory expense
C. Purchases
D. Cost of goods sold

16. Which of the following is NOT a financial asset?

A. Marketable securities
B. Receivables
C. Inventory
D. Short-term investments


17. Notes to financial statements are beneficial in meeting the disclosure requirements of financial reporting. The note should NOT be used to:

A. Describe significant accounting policies
B. Describe depreciation methods employed by the company
C. Describe principles and methods peculiar to the industry
D. Correct an improper presentation in the financial statements

18. A company purchased the land in exchange for the capital stock; it would affect which of the following?

A. Cash flow from operating activities
B. Cash flow from investing activities
C. Cash flow from financing activities
D. It would not affect any section

19. Which of the following would NOT represent the cash outflows for the business?

A. Purchase of building for cash
B. The sale of land for cash
C. Retirement of long term debt
D. The payment of cash for dividends

20. The balance sheet reported a beginning balance of Rs. 20,000 in Accounts Receivable
and an ending balance of Rs. 15,000. The income statement reported Sales Revenue of
Rs. 200,000. Using this information, compute cash collected from customers.

A. Rs. 215,000
B. Rs. 205,000
C. Rs. 195,000
D. Rs. 200,000

Q No. Selected Option
1 B
2 B
3 C
4 D
5 A
6 B
7 C
8 D
9 A
10 B
11 D
12 D
13 A
14 B
15 C
16 D
17 A
18 B
19 C
20 D

1 B
2 B
3 B
4 D
5 D
6 D
7 A
8 B
9 C
10 A
11 B
12 A
13 C
14 C
15 C
16 C
17 D
18 B
19 A
20 A

1.. C
2.. B
3.. D
4.. C
5.. A
6.. B
7.. C
8.. D
9.. D
10.. C
11.. A
12.. B
13.. B
14.. B
15.. C
16.. B
17.. A
18.. C
19.. C
20.. D

-------------------

1. Management Information System consists of people, equipment, and procedures to
gather, sort, ____________, evaluate, and distribute information to marketing decision
makers.
a. Test
b. Arrange
c. Analyze
d. Control

2. The systematic collection and analysis of publicly available information about
competitors and developments in the marketing environment is very useful. It is known
as:
a. Marketing data
b. Marketing intelligence
c. Web Master
d. Secondary data

3. Which of the following steps in the marketing research process has been left out:
defining the problems and research objectives, implementing the research plan, and
interpreting and reporting the findings?
a. Developing the research budget
b. Choosing the research agency
c. Choosing the research method
d. Developing the research plan

4. Harvard University is using the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of
data relevant to marketing its programs to minority students. What do we call this?
a. Promotion
b. Self-study
c. Marketing research
d. Cost-benefit analysis

5. Which one of the following schemes is TRUE regarding marketing research?
a. Gathering data, analysis, interpretation
b. Analysis, gathering data, interpretation
c. Interpretation, gathering data, analysis
d. Interpretation, reporting, analysis

6. The objective of which of the following research is to gather preliminary information
that will help define the problem and suggest hypotheses?
a. Descriptive
b. Exploratory
c. Causal
d. Corrective
7. Which form of data can usually be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost?
a. Primary
b. Census
c. Secondary
d. Tertiary
8. Which one of the following is NOT one of the stages that customers go through in the
process of adopting a new product?
a. Awareness
b. Interest
c. Evaluation
d. Culture
9. Which one of the following statements BEST characterizes marketing research?
a. Research is a continuous process, providing a constant flow of information
b. Research is conducted on a special-project basis
c. Research is performed when routine information is required
d. Research is the basis for making recurring marketing decisions
10. If ABC Ltd knows that its market share in Pakistan has dropped 13 percent in the first
quarter of the year but does not know what might have contributed to this decline; it is in
which stage of the marketing research process?
a. Hypothesis development
b. Symptom identification
c. Problem identification
d. Data interpretation
11. A person on the University Book Shop's survey asks respondents to tell the shop, in
their own words, what they like least about textbook shopping. What is a type of this
question?
a. An open-ended
b. A dichotomous
c. A multiple choice
d. A scale
12. Marketing researchers usually draw conclusions about large groups of consumers by
studying which of the following small components of the total consumer population?
a. Group
b. Sample
c. Target group
d. Audience
13. The process by which people select, organize and interpret information to form a
meaningful picture of the world. It refers to which one of the following?
a. Personality
b. Perception
c. Selective group
d. Habitual behavior
14. Which one of the following concepts refers to the “set of actions and activities
associated with each position one holds within a family, club and organization”?
a. Personality
b. A role
c. Perception
d. An attitude
15. Marketing stimuli consist of the four Ps. Which is NOT one of these Ps?
a. Product
b. Price
c. Political
d. Promotion
16. Groups of people with shared value systems based on common life experiences and
situations in a culture represent which one of the following options?
a. Cognitive dissonances
b. Subcultures
c. Motives
d. Attitudes
17. A change in an individual's behavior prompted by information and experience refers
to which one of the following concepts?
a. Learning
b. Role selection
c. Perception
d. Motivation
18. Person’s pattern of living as expressed in his or her psychographics represents which
one of the following concepts?
a. Personality
b. Culture
c. Lifestyle
d. Motive
19. Maslow has a list of human needs from the most pressing to the least pressing. They
include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Physiological needs
b. Safety needs
c. Need recognition
d. Self-actualization
20. A transaction in which the organization is making an initial purchase of an item to be
used to perform a new job refers to which of the following purchases?
a. Straight rebuy purchase
b. Delayed purchase
c. Modified rebuy purchase
d. New-task purchase

1.. C
2.. B
3.. D
4.. C
5.. A
6.. B
7.. C
8.. D
9.. D
10.. C
11.. A
12.. B
13.. B
14.. B
15.. C
16.. B
17.. A
18.. C
19.. C
20.. D

-------------------

1. Management Information System consists of people, equipment, and procedures to
gather, sort, ____________, evaluate, and distribute information to marketing decision
makers.
a. Test
b. Arrange
c. Analyze
d. Control

2. The systematic collection and analysis of publicly available information about
competitors and developments in the marketing environment is very useful. It is known
as:
a. Marketing data
b. Marketing intelligence
c. Web Master
d. Secondary data

3. Which of the following steps in the marketing research process has been left out:
defining the problems and research objectives, implementing the research plan, and
interpreting and reporting the findings?
a. Developing the research budget
b. Choosing the research agency
c. Choosing the research method
d. Developing the research plan

4. Harvard University is using the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of
data relevant to marketing its programs to minority students. What do we call this?
a. Promotion
b. Self-study
c. Marketing research
d. Cost-benefit analysis

5. Which one of the following schemes is TRUE regarding marketing research?
a. Gathering data, analysis, interpretation
b. Analysis, gathering data, interpretation
c. Interpretation, gathering data, analysis
d. Interpretation, reporting, analysis

6. The objective of which of the following research is to gather preliminary information
that will help define the problem and suggest hypotheses?
a. Descriptive
b. Exploratory
c. Causal
d. Corrective
7. Which form of data can usually be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost?
a. Primary
b. Census
c. Secondary
d. Tertiary
8. Which one of the following is NOT one of the stages that customers go through in the
process of adopting a new product?
a. Awareness
b. Interest
c. Evaluation
d. Culture
9. Which one of the following statements BEST characterizes marketing research?
a. Research is a continuous process, providing a constant flow of information
b. Research is conducted on a special-project basis
c. Research is performed when routine information is required
d. Research is the basis for making recurring marketing decisions
10. If ABC Ltd knows that its market share in Pakistan has dropped 13 percent in the first
quarter of the year but does not know what might have contributed to this decline; it is in
which stage of the marketing research process?
a. Hypothesis development
b. Symptom identification
c. Problem identification
d. Data interpretation
11. A person on the University Book Shop's survey asks respondents to tell the shop, in
their own words, what they like least about textbook shopping. What is a type of this
question?
a. An open-ended
b. A dichotomous
c. A multiple choice
d. A scale
12. Marketing researchers usually draw conclusions about large groups of consumers by
studying which of the following small components of the total consumer population?
a. Group
b. Sample
c. Target group
d. Audience
13. The process by which people select, organize and interpret information to form a
meaningful picture of the world. It refers to which one of the following?
a. Personality
b. Perception
c. Selective group
d. Habitual behavior
14. Which one of the following concepts refers to the “set of actions and activities
associated with each position one holds within a family, club and organization”?
a. Personality
b. A role
c. Perception
d. An attitude
15. Marketing stimuli consist of the four Ps. Which is NOT one of these Ps?
a. Product
b. Price
c. Political
d. Promotion
16. Groups of people with shared value systems based on common life experiences and
situations in a culture represent which one of the following options?
a. Cognitive dissonances
b. Subcultures
c. Motives
d. Attitudes
17. A change in an individual's behavior prompted by information and experience refers
to which one of the following concepts?
a. Learning
b. Role selection
c. Perception
d. Motivation
18. Person’s pattern of living as expressed in his or her psychographics represents which
one of the following concepts?
a. Personality
b. Culture
c. Lifestyle
d. Motive
19. Maslow has a list of human needs from the most pressing to the least pressing. They
include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Physiological needs
b. Safety needs
c. Need recognition
d. Self-actualization
20. A transaction in which the organization is making an initial purchase of an item to be
used to perform a new job refers to which of the following purchases?
a. Straight rebuy purchase
b. Delayed purchase
c. Modified rebuy purchase
d. New-task purchase

1-d
2-a
3-a
4-b
5-d
6-b
7-a
8-a
9-d
10-d
11-d
12-a
13-d
14-b
15-b
16-b
17-d
18-b
19-b
20-c
-----------------------------
Choose the correct/best option from given MCQs and put your answer in
tabular form as drawn above.

1. Which of the following account balance is shown on debit side of Trial Balance?
(It is assumed that all account balances are shown on normal balance).
a. Capital account
b. Sundry creditors account
c. Accounts payable account
d. Sundry debtors account

2. If cost of sales is Rs. 95,000, income from sales Rs. 200,000 and operating
expenses Rs. 300,000. What will be net result?
a. Rs.195,000 Losses
b. Rs.195,000 Profits
c. Rs.105,000 Profits
d. Rs.105,000 Losses

3. In which of the following statement opening stock is shown?
a. Profit and loss account
b. Balance sheet
c. Cash flow statement
d. Owner’s equity

4. Working capital Rs. 20,000, Current liabilities Rs. 30,000 and fixed assets Rs.
100,000; calculate current assets?
a. Rs. 10,000
b. Rs. 50,000
c. Rs. 110,000
d. Rs. 120,000

5. Which of the following content(s) is (are) included in the Cost of goods sold?
a. Opening stock
b. Purchases
c. Freight in
d. All of the given options

6. Which of the following Organization converts raw material into finished goods?
a. Trading concern
b. Manufacturing concern
c. Merchandising concern
d. Service concern
7. Which of the following is an example of direct materials cost?
a. Production worker’s wages
b. Depreciation expenses
c. A piece of wood for the production of chair
d. Polish and finishing material for chair
8. In cost of goods sold statement, the ‘cost of material consumed’ is equal to:
a. Opening raw material inventory + Purchases – Ending raw material
inventory
b. Opening raw material inventory - Purchases + Ending raw material
inventory
c. Ending raw material inventory - Opening raw material inventory –
Purchases
d. Ending raw material inventory + Opening raw material inventory +
Purchases
9. What would be the value of Total Factory Cost, if cost of raw materials, direct
labor costs, and manufacturing overhead costs are Rs.80,000, Rs.50,000, and
Rs.60,000 respectively?
a. Rs.130, 000
b. Rs.110, 000
c. Rs.140, 000
d. Rs.190, 000
10. Which of the following assets are shown at written down value in Balance Sheet?
a. Current assets
b. Liquid assets
c. Floating assets
d. Fixed assets
11. An asset cost Rs. 50,000, has an estimated residual value of Rs.1, 500, and an
estimated useful life of 5 years. What is the depreciation rate?
a. 20.0%
b. 25.0%
c. 35.5%
d. 50.4 %
12. Calculate depreciation of machine after first year by using diminishing balance
method with the help of given data?
If, Cost of machine = Rs.400, 000
Useful life = 5 years
Residual value = Rs.25, 000
Sale price = Rs.40, 000
Rate of depreciation = 40%
a. Rs. 160,000
b. Rs. 11,840
c. Rs. 34,560
d. Rs. 34,860
13. Which one of the following is INCORRECT about closing Stock?
a. It is added into current assets
b. It is deducted from material available for use
c. It becomes opening stock of next year
d. It increases the owner’s equity of business
14. In the cost of goods sold statement, Cost of direct material consumed + Direct
labor= ___________
a. Conversion cost
b. Prime cost
c. Total factory cost
d. Cost of goods manufactured
15. The total of all costs incurred to convert raw material into finished goods is
known as:
a. Prime cost
b. Conversion cost
c. Sunk cost
d. Opportunity cost
16. In cost of goods sold statement the ‘total factory cost’ is equal to:
a. Cost of material consumed + Labor cost
b. Cost of material consumed + Conversion cost
c. Cost of material consumed + Total factory cost
d. Cost of material consumed + Factory overhead
17. Which of the following is (are) inventory valuation method(s)?
a. FIFO
b. LIFO
c. Weighted average
d. All of the given options
18. The cost of an incomplete fixed asset is transferred to _________ as on Balance
Sheet date.
a. Capital account
b. Capital work in progress account
c. Relevant asset account
d. Owner's equity account
19. Under the straight line method of depreciation:
a. Amount of depreciation increases every year
b. Amount of depreciation remains constant for every year
c. Amount of depreciation decreases every year
d. None of the given options
20. Which of the following asset is NOT depreciated?
a. Factory Buildings
b. Office Equipment
c. Land
d. Plant & Machinery