Virtual University Solved Assignments Online Quiz Past Papers GDB VUsolutions VU solutions

1 B
2 B
3 C
4 C
5 B
6 A
7 D
8 D
9 D
10 A

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1 C
2 C
3 B
4 A
5 D
6 D
7 C
8 A
9 B
10 C

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1 B
2 D
3 C
4 C
5 D
6 A
7 A
8 A
9 D
10 B
11 D
12 D
13 D
14 D
15 C
16 B
17 A
18 D
19 D
20 D

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1. Which of the following tool provides the company with business-related information
like industry trends and competitor information?
a) Business Automation (BA)
b) Enterprise Marketing Automation (EMA)
c) Customer Service and Support (CSS)
d) Sales Force Automation (SFA)

2. A security measure to unauthorized access to documents is:
a) Backup/restore
b) Physical access restrictions
c) Network access control
d) None of the given options

3. The centralized storage (in a data warehouse) of all information relevant to customer
interaction is BEST described by which of the following concepts?
a) Collaborative CRM
b) Scalability
c) Data base
d) Workflow

4. With respect to customer satisfaction, which of the following is referred as the key to
success?
a) Preference
b) Up-to-date Supply
c) Courtesy
d) Enthusiasm

5. Product-related ethical issues can arise when marketers:
a) Do not provide consumers with enough information about product transportation.
b) Fail to disclose information to consumers about the risks associated with using a
product.
c) Force intermediaries to behave in a specific manner.
d) Do not provide consumers with enough information about how a product is priced.
6. A _____ is an organized collection of comprehensive information about individual
customers or prospects.
a) Business database
b) Customer mailing list
c) Customer database
d) Marketing database
7. Companies can gain a strong competitive advantage through having better-trained
people. This is known as:
a) Personnel differentiation
b) Product differentiation
c) Personnel training
d) Human resources parity
8. In service marketing, the most important link to the customer is known as:
a) The tangible aspects of the service
b) Well-trained contact employees
c) Good word-of-mouth communication
d) Effective advertising
9. Which of the following is a technique that might be used by an active listener?
a) Offer a point of view often when in conversation
b) Paraphrase the speaker's meaning
c) Express concern
d) Explain the speaker's meaning
10. Which of the following are the two skills associated with being a good listener?
a) To pay attention and to provide a strong point of view in response to a given message
b) To pay attention and to provide feedback
c) To pay attention and to mask your disinterest when necessary
d) To listen to more than one message at a time and to provide constructive criticism
11. Which of the following is NOT part of an organization’s micro-environment?
a) Competitors
b) Suppliers
c) Customers
d) Government legislation
12. Which of the following are the means by which long-term objectives will be
achieved?
a) Long-term goals
b) Mission statements
c) Strategies
d) Vision statements
13. Karen's company just finished meeting with the consultants who delivered a 4-year
plan of improvements. Which part of the strategic landscape is described?
a) Strategy initiation
b) Strategy formulation
c) Strategy implementation
d) Strategy assessment
14. It is a job for the whole management team, not a few senior managers, because every
manager needs to be concerned with what has to be done in his/her area of authority to
implement the company's strategy successfully refers to as:
a) Implementing and executing strategy
b) Formulating and implementing strategy
c) Formulating and executing strategy
d) Statement is wrong
15. Which one of the following is NOT a good indicator of how well a company's present
strategy is working?
a) The company's market share ranking and whether its share is trending up, down, or
staying more or less the same
b) Whether the company is regarded as a leader in some significant area (technology,
product quality, customer service, product innovation and so on) and the firm's image
and reputation with customers
c) Whether the company's profit margins are increasing or decreasing and how large
they are relative to other firms in the industry
d) Whether the company's resource strengths and competitive capabilities outweigh its
re
16. Which of the following refers to companies often failure to predict changes, either
slow or long range to at least calculate their impact on their product and customers?
a) Inability to predict environmental reaction
b) Failure to coordinate
c) Poor communications
d) Failure to obtain senior management commitment
17. Immediate attention and help must be given to customers in sensitive to situations. This
skill refers to which of the followings?
a) Skill to listen
b) Skill to speed up response
c) Skill to provide positive experience
d) Skill to be receptive
18. Branding assists buyers in numerous ways. Which of the following is NOT a direct
consumer benefit derived from branding?
a) Brand names convey product quality
b) Branding enables suppliers to attract loyal and profitable set of customers
c) Brand names raise awareness and increase consumer interest
d) Brand names increase shopper efficiency
19. Consumer’s perception of product or service quality is influenced by which of the
following category?
a) Brand perception, price perception, and value perception
b) Brand name, objective price, and perceived sacrifice
c) Brand perception, price perception, and store perception
d) Brand name, objective price, and willingness to buy
20. A brand relationship strategy is used for which of the following purpose?
a) Focuses on profits
b) Identifies building market share as its objective
c) Pulls a firm's diverse product lines into a “family of brands”
d) Brings brands and customers together

1 B
2 C
3 D
4 E
5 C
6 B
7 B
8 D
9 C
10 B
11 D
12 B
13 A
14 D




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1. A
2. C
3. C
4. B
5. C
6. B
7. A
8. A
9. A
10. A

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1. Which form of international commercial payment thats one or more banks?

A. Bill of exchange
B. Sight draft
C. Date draft
D. Letter of credit

2. Which one of the following is not part of an organization's macro-environment?

A. Political environment
B. Economic environment
C. Internal environment
D. Social environment

3. Identify the information that an international marketer needs to know under the head of “Analysis of company sales potential” to evaluate firm sales and profit potential.

A. Market Access
B. Product Potential
C. Cost of Internal Distribution
D. Per capita income and distribution

4. Carriage and insurance paid to (CIP) is one of the term of sale is used in place of which of the following?

A. Free alongside ship (FAS)
B. Cost, insurance, and freight (CIF)
C. Cost and freight (CFR)
D. Free on board (FOB)

5. Identify the analysis that an international marketer uses to determine potential export in international market.

A. Two stage analysis
B. Four stage analysis
C. Three stage analysis
D. Five stage analysis

6. An individual is using the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of data relevant to marketing its programs to minority students. What do we call this?

A. Promotion
B. Marketing research
C. Self-study
D. Cost-benefit analysis

7. Identify the pricing term that indicates that the charterer of a vessel is responsible for the cost of loading and unloaded goods from vessel.

A. Free in
B. Free in and out
C. Free out
D. Free out and in

8. Which form of data can usually be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost?

A. Secondary
B. Primary
C. Census
D. Tertiary

9. Which method of research can be used to obtain information if people are unwilling or unable to provide?

A. Observation
B. Focus groups
C. Personal interviews
D. Questionnaires

10. What is the desired rate of speech for a presentation?

A. 100 to 150 words
B. 10 to 15 words
C. 25 to 50 words
D. 50 to 90 words

1. Which of the following is referred as “the physical ability to perform athletic activity?”
a. Health
b. Fitness
c. Alertness
d. Activeness

2. When levels of glycogen become excessively ________, the an aerobically trained
metabolism turns to blood sugar as its secondary source of fuel
a. Low
b. High
c. Fast
d. None of the given options

3. Fatigue, recurrent, exercise injuries, low blood sugar patterns, depression and
anxiety, fat metabolism problems are the symptoms directly related to excessive
_________ raining of your metabolism
a. Aerobic
b. Anaerobic
c. Fitness
d. Balanced

4. Infant mortality in poor countries is __________ per 1,000 live births.
a. 85
b. 115
c. 100
d. 150

5. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of group decision making?
a. Minority domination
b. Increased legitimacy
c. Generate more alternatives
d. Increase acceptance of a solution

6. _____________ makes people different, yet similar, in many ways.
a. Intelligence
b. Family life
c. Personality
d. Motivation

7. If you activate your aerobic system with proper exercise and diet, you burn which of
the following as your primary fuel?
a. Water
b. Glucose
c. Vitamins
d. Fat

8. Which of the following is not one of the types of teams?
a. Functional teams
b. Cross functional teams
c. Virtual teams
d. Managed teams

9. “A form of conformity in which group members feel extensive pressure to align their
opinions with other’s opinion” is called _____________.
a. Role
b. Norm
c. Status
d. Group think

10. Conflict that prevents a group from achieving its goals is called:
a. Functional conflict
b. Task conflict
c. Dysfunctional conflict
d. Process conflict


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1 A
2 A
3 A
4 C
5 B
6 A
7 D
8 B
9 D
10 C
11 B
12 B
13 C
14 D
15 C
16 B
17 B
18 A
19 B
20 C

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1.D

2.B

3.B

4.B

5.A

6.A

7.A

8.A

9.C

10C

11C

12C

13D

14D

15A

16D

17A

18B

19C

20D

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1. If computational and record-keeping costs are about the same under both FIFO
and weighted average, which of the following method will generally be
preferred?
A. Weighted Average
B. FIFO
C. They offer the same degree of information
D. Cannot be determined with so little information

2. Which of the following System applies when standardized goods are produced
under a series of inter-connected operations?
A. Job Order Costing
B. Process Costing
C. Standard Costing
D. All of the given options

3. The cost of material that is not completely processed, would be found in which
of the following inventory account on the Balance Sheet?
A. Direct material inventory
B. Work-in-process inventory
C. Finished goods inventory
D. Supplies inventory

4. A complete set of Financial Statements for Nestle Company at December 31,
2008 would include each of the followings, EXCEPT:
A. Balance Sheet as of December 31, 2008
B. Statement of Projected Cash flows for 2009
C. Income Statement for the year ended December 31, 2008
D. Notes containing additional information that is useful in interpreting the Financial Statements

5. Total Fixed cost _______ with the increase in production.
A. Remains constant
B. Decreases
C. Increases

D. There is no relation between fixed cost and activity level
6. The following data is available for the Bricks Company:
Particulars Rs.
Freight in 20,000
Purchases return and allowances 80,000
Marketing expenses 200,000
Finished goods Inventory, ending 90,000
Cost of goods sold 700% of marketing expenses
You are required to calculate the cost of goods available for sales if Gross Profit is
50% of cost of goods sold.
A. Rs. 1,490,000
B. Rs. 1,390,000
C. Rs. 1,500,000
D. Rs. 1,590,000

7. Consider the following:
Beginning work in process inventory Rs. 20,000
Direct material used Rs. 50,000
Direct labor used Rs. 80,000
Manufacturing overhead Rs. 120,000
Ending work in process inventory Rs. 10,000
Cost of finished goods manufactured Rs. 260,000
The total manufacturing costs would be:
A. Rs. 250,000
B. Rs. 260,000
C. Rs. 270,000
D. Rs. 280,000

8. Job 210 was unfinished at the end of the accounting period. The total cost
assigned to the job was Rs. 12,000 of which Rs. 3,000 was direct material cost.
Factory overheads were allocated to goods in process at 150% of direct labor
cost. What was the amount of direct labor cost charged to Job 210?
A. Rs. 3,600
B. Rs. 3,000
C. Rs. 5,400
D. Rs. 9,000

9. Job 210 was unfinished at the end of the accounting period. The total cost
assigned to the job was Rs. 12,000 of which Rs. 3,000 was direct material cost.
Factory overheads were allocated to goods in process at 150% of direct labor
cost. What was the amount of Factory over head cost charged to Job 210?
A. Rs. 3,600
B. Rs. 3,000
C. Rs. 5,400
D. Rs. 9,000

10. The over applied balance of the Factory Overhead ledger account is Rs. 36,000,
a significant amount. The ending balances of Goods in Process Inventory,
Finished Goods Inventory and Cost of Goods Sold accounts are Rs. 12,000, Rs.
8,000, and Rs. 60,000, respectively. On the basis of ending balances, how much
of the over applied balance of overhead should be allocated to each of these
accounts?
A. Rs.5, 400, Rs.27, 600, Rs.3, 000
B. Rs.27,400, Rs. 3,600, Rs. 5,000
C. Rs. 5,400, Rs. 3,600, Rs. 27,000
D. None of the given options

11. PEL Limited has been using an overhead rate of Rs. 5.60 per machine hour.
During the year, overheads of Rs. 275,000 were incurred and 48,000 machine
hours worked. Therefore, overheads were:
A. Under-applied by Rs.7,600
B. Over-applied by Rs. 6,200
C. Under-applied by Rs. 6,200
D. Over-applied by Rs. 7,600

12. Factory overhead should be allocated on the basis of:
A. Direct labor hours
B. Direct labor costs
C. An activity basis which relates to cost incurrence
D. Machine hours

13. If a company uses a predetermined rate for the application of factory overhead,
the idle capacity variance is the:
A. Over or under applied variable cost element of overheads
B. Difference in budgeted costs and actual costs of fixed overheads items
C. Difference in budgeted cost and actual costs of variable overheads items
D. Over or under applied fixed cost element of overheads

14. Which of the following manufacturing operations, which is best, suited to the
utilization of a job order system?
A. Soft bottling operation
B. Crude oil refining
C. Plastic molding operation
D. Helicopter manufacturing

15. Which of the following is a characteristic of process cost accounting system?
A. Material, Labor and Overheads are accumulated by orders
B. Companies use this system if they process custom orders
C. Only Closing stock of work in process is restated in terms of completed units
D. Opening and Closing stock of work in process are related in terms of completed
units

16. Which cost accumulation procedure is best suited to a continuous mass
production process of similar units?
A. Job order costing
B. Standard costing
C. Actual costing
D. Process costing

17. Which of the following is an objective of cost accounting?
A. Provide information to management for decision making
B. Computation of cost per unit
C. Preparation of Financial Statement
D. Computation of relevant costs

18. Which of the following would be considered an external user of the firm's
accounting information?
A. President
B. Stockholder
C. Sales manager
D. Controller

19. Cost accounting concepts include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Planning
B. Controlling
C. Sharing
D. Costing

20. The chief financial officer is also known as the:
A. Controller
B. Staff accountant
C. Auditor
D. Finance director

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VU solutions

Q no. Selected option
1 A
2 B
3 C
4 D
5 B
6 A
7 C
8 C
9 C
10 D

100%
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1. Which style of conflict resolution is best when the issues are complex and critical, with no clear solution available?
A. Compromising
B. Forcing
C. Avoiding conflict
D. Accommodating
2. According to which technique, you mentally convert negative aspects into positive ones by looking for positive elements in a situation?
A. Optimistic approach
B. Cognitive restructuring
C. Grievance Procedure
D. Negotiation
3. Which of the following is the act of understanding message?
A. Encoding
B. Communication media
C. Decoding
D. Channel
4. Teams in organizations emphasize on ________ communication.
A. Downward
B. Horizontal
C. Upward
D. Grapevine
5. An individual who always agree with everyone and flexible to change style has a ___________ communication style.
A. Reflective
B. Supportive
C. Versatility
D. Emotive
HUMAN RELATIONS (HRM611)
SPRING 2009
Total Marks: 10 Quiz#02
6. The key components of emotional intelligence include self-awareness, relationship management, self management and:
A. Social awareness
B. Motivation
C. Intelligence
D. Self confidence
7. The extent to which an individual has broad interests and is willing to take risks called:
A. Conscientiousness
B. Extroversion
C. Openness to experience
D. Emotional stability
8. Which of the following country make more extensive use of body language as high-context culture?
A. France
B. Korea
C. China
D. Mexico
9. All of the following are techniques for overcoming cross-cultural communication barriers EXCEPT:
A. Use straightforward language and speak slowly and clearly
B. Be alert to cultural differences in customs and behavior
C. De-emphasize nonverbal communication
D. Observe cultural differences in manners/customs
10. When we converse about interpersonal relationships it indicates what kind of communication style?
A. Supportive
B. Reflective
C. Emotive
D. Versatility

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vu solutions

1 A
2 B
3 B
4 C
5 B
6 C
7 A
8 C
9 B
10 C
11 B
12 B
13 B
14 D
15 D
16 D
17 D
18 D
19 C
20 A

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vu solutions

1 A
2 A
3 A
4 A
5 A
6 C
7 A
8 A
9 D
10 D

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vu solutions

1 D
2 D
3 A
4 A
5 D
6 B
7 B
8 B
9 C
10 B
11 B
12 A
13 D
14 C
15 C
16 A
17 B
18 A
19 D
20 B

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Q# 1: International entrepreneur’s decisions are more complex because of:
A. Business expansion
B. Analysis of Huge information is difficult
C. Complex transactions
D. Uncontrollable factors

Q# 2: Which one of the following is NOT the problem in developing the economies
under different developed countries?
A. Gap of knowledge
B. Variable rate of return
C. Different accounting system
D. Same communication style

Q# 3: When the multiplicity of environments become too complex to handle, the
international entrepreneurs often __________.
A. Go for mergers
B. Diversify
C. Decentralize operations
D. Sale out the foreign business

Q# 4: In stage of responsibility allocation process the entrepreneur follows:
A. Highly decentralized decision making process
B. Somewhat centralized decision making process
C. Highly centralized decision making process
D. No particular standard

Q# 5: Following are the types of foreign direct investment EXCEPT:
A. Joint venture
B. Management contracts
C. Management contracts
D. Merger
Q# 6: An ice cream producing company merges with a cotton spinning company this
merger is an example of:
A. Product extension merger
B. Diversified activity merger
C. Market extension merger
D. Vertical merger
Q# 7: Which one of the following gives suggestions for new product but also helps to
market new product in the market?
A. Existing products and services
B. Distribution channels
C. Federal government
D. Consumers
Q# 8: Which one of the following is important for international business to avoid trade
barriers?
A. Protectionist attitude
B. Entrepreneurial partnering
C. Free trade areas
D. None of the given options
Q# 9: Which one of the following is NOT a source of idea generation?
A. Consumers
B. Brain storming
C. Focus group
D. None of the given options
Q# 10: A patent is granted for a specified amount of time because of the assumption:
A. That during this time firm will cover its development costs
B. That firm will earn a sufficient profit during this period
C. To limit the monopoly of the firm
D. That it will stimulate idea and development of a better product
Q# 11: Which of the following is NOT followed in brainstorming?
A. The wilder idea is better
B. Criticism is done by the group members
C. Quantity of ideas is required
D. The session should be fun, with no on dominating the discussion
Q# 12: Developing a new idea through inquiry and testing is called:
A. Heuristics
B. Scientific method
C. Forced relationship
D. Value analysis
Q# 13: The product life cycle starts with which stage of product planning and
development process?
A. Test marketing stage
B. Product development stage
C. Commercialization stage
D. Product planning and development process is a part of product life cycle
Q# 14: The evaluation criteria for the new product should include all of the following,
EXCEPT:
A. Determination of market demand
B. Pricing and marketing policies of other competing firms
C. Determination of the suppliers
D. Product should be profitable
Q# 15: Which of the following is NOT a requirement of Disclosure Document?
A. Description of the invention
B. Photos of invention
C. Claims for invention’s usefulness
D. Cover letter
Q# 16: Which of the following grants the owner protection from anyone else making,
using and selling the identified innovation?
A. Utility patent
B. Design patent
C. Plant patent
D. International patent
Q# 17: Which of the following can NOT be covered under the copyright protection?
A. Computer software
B. Computer hardware
C. Poems and songs
D. Models and sculpture
Q# 18: Licensing is a significant marketing strategy to:
A. Use intellectual property of others
B. Pirate others’ patents
C. Grow the business in new markets
D. Control the costs
Q# 19: Which one of the following is the main problem for the entrepreneur in the
beginning?
A. Lack of experience
B. Lack of education
C. None of the given options
D. Limited resources
Q# 20: Which of the following is NOT essential part of the contract?
A. All the parties envolved should be named
B. Transaction should be described in detail
C. Obtain signatures of the persons envolved
D. Place where contract takes place